I know it's a hot topic but the next step should be a requirement that all government parastatals to bank with government owned banks.
Why should a parastatal receive money from the government, bank it in a private bank, then when the government floats treasury bills only for the same private bank to invest?
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Why should a parastatal receive money from the government, bank it in a private bank, then when the government floats treasury bills only for the same private bank to invest?
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